In class we discussed Dante’s preferential damned treatment of his enemies’. This forced me to ask myself the question: do we as readers obtain circumstantial lessons through past authors/text, or can we read a text while maintaining “reader’s virginity” against previous purpose? Look at the bible for instance, different versions of the book lead to different conclusions. I choose to pull out two passages from both the Harper Collins translation and the King James translation and see how the two compare. KJV- In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judæa, And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.
HCSB- In those days John the Baptist appeared in the wilderness of Judea, proclaiming, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven has come near.”
The first notable difference between the two bibles is the depiction of how John the Baptist comes to be in the wilderness of Judea. The KJV uses the word “preaching” which is directly linked to a sermon. This translation gives John the Baptist a “preaching” tone of voice and ultimately gives him more accountability in my mind. John the Baptist is almost more legitimate in the KJV rather than in the HCSB where he just “appears” in the wilderness of Judea. With John the Baptist simply appearing, I feel less authority and credibility given to him. Instead, it seems as if this guy, appeared in the wilderness and started ranting.
The second difference that I just want to point on is the linguistic use of “æ” in the KJV and how the HCSB seems to drop it to the “e” in translation. I looked the use of “æ” in bibles and it seems that æ is Latin. This makes sense to me considering many of the outdated Latin terms, phrases and symbols were dropped in the HCSB. The KJV left them as if to seem more rightful and genuine. In my opinion the “old language” does seem to read with more validity
The third difference is how John the Baptist vocalizes his message. In the KJV he simply “says” his message whereas in the HCSB he “proclaims.” Maybe the use of “proclaiming” in the HCSB makes up for John the Baptist “appearing.” Meaning, “proclaiming” seems more official or formal compared to John “saying” his message.
The fourth notable difference is the very last phrase of the passage. In the KJV John the Baptist says the kingdom of heaven “is at hand,” whereas in the HCSB John the Baptist proclaims the kingdom of heaven “has come near.” To me, the KJV, “at hand”, seems much more present and immediate than the HCSB, “has come near.”
After finding notable differences between these bible passages, I can't help but wonder how we as readers assume Dante is any more or less preferential to his own experiances. Furthermore, how we as readers also use our experiances to manipulate our interpretation of Dante.


